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Originally Posted by LadyShea
There is no confusion, here is just you lying and weaseling because Lessans was wrong
He said
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this is far from the case with the eyes because there is no similar afferent nerve ending in this organ
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There are afferent nerve endings in the eye. Lots and lots of them. He was wrong.
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Any receptor, or group of receptors, specialized to receive and
transmit external stimuli as of sight, taste, hearing, etc. But this is a
wholly fallacious observation where the eyes are concerned because
nothing from the external world, other than light, strikes the optic
nerve as stimuli do upon the organs of hearing, taste, touch and smell.
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Light is the external stimuli, and light is received by specialized receptors in the eye.
So where is this fallaciousness Lessans talks about? There is no difference between the eyes and the other senses even using Lessans very own criteria in this passage! |
He didn't believe that there was a direct contact that would carry visual information from the optic nerve to the brain where it is decoded as such. Scientists are still trying to understand how visual information is transduced from the retina to the optic nerve. Regardless, this is not the way the truth of how we see is going to be determined. It will most likely be determined by empirical testing, not dissection.